4,709 karma · joined February 22, 2013
I think what you're trying to get at in your edit is more in line with Pre-Employment Inquiries and Marital Status. [0]. The EEOC puts it this way:
"It is clearly discriminatory to ask such questions only of women and not men (or vice-versa). Even if asked of both men and women, such questions may be seen as evidence of intent to discriminate against, for example, women with children."
There established precedent for "sex-plus" discrimination [1], whereby the claimants sex "plus" another factor brings it closer to a Title VII claim.
The TL;DR answer to your question is that nobody has brought a case (that I can find) with those particular details, but you can't treat men differently than women and vice-versa, and that includes gay and trans men and women
[0]https://www.eeoc.gov/pre-employment-inquiries-and-marital-st... [1]https://www.businessmanagementdaily.com/52309/title-vii-sex-...
From page 2: "Those who adopted the Civil Rights Act might not have anticipated their work would lead to this particular result. Likely, they weren’t thinking about many of the Act’s consequences that have become apparent over the years, including its prohibition against discrimination on the basis of motherhood or its ban on the sexual harassment of male employees. But the limits of the drafters’ imagination supply no reason to ignore the law’s demands."
Then later, on page 4:
"The employers also stress that homosexuality and transgender status are distinct concepts from sex, and that if Congress wanted to address these matters in Title VII, it would have referenced them specifically. But when Congress chooses not to include any exceptions to a broad rule, this Court applies the broad rule."
The Majority refuses to limit the scope of Title VII simply because the drafters did not consider gay and trans workers when they made the law, and also penalizes those same drafters for not creating exceptions for individuals they lacked the imagination to think of to start with.
Ah, but that's not textualism. Textualism is a method of statutory interpretation whereby the plain text of a statute is used to determine the meaning of the legislation. Instead of attempting to determine statutory purpose or legislative intent, textualists adhere to the objective meaning of the legal text. [0]
To be even more explicit about this, an employer cannot refuse to higher only married lesbians. A cisgender man married to a woman could bring a suit for sex discrimination.
Discrimination is defined by what's called "disparate treatment," that is, treating individuals differently because of their sex. It doesn't relate to what is legally permissible outside that situation.
As well, people don't really go bankrupt from medical costs that often. Hospitalizations cause about 4% of bankruptcies among nonelderly adults. Among uninsured, this rate is about 6%. They mostly go bankrupt because they lose their jobs and income [0].
This is not accurate. Cash payers just have to go through the administrative part themselves, cobbling together charity and self-negotiation, eventually landing on a payment plan that doesn't get reported to credit agencies.
For the next billion users of the web/computers $100 is still a big investment.
It doesn't take copyright to make a profit off of a work. the Criterion Collection includes Charade, which is out of copyright: https://www.criterion.com/films/603-charade
I'm sure the children of the author can come up with inventive ways of selling the work.
At least if it's in the hands of corporations there's still a chance that the only entity more powerful (the government) will do something about it (through regulation).
There is something fundamentally wrong with American society, though. No arguments there.
Does the content of the event persist in a way that makes it easily sharable, with comments?
If the answer to both of these is “no,” I contend that the communications on these platforms is “private” and should be regulated by the US Government against censorship (though I have no hope that it will be). My reasoning is this:
(1) Zoom has no expectation that private communications will harm their business. In the same way Ma Bell never took responsibility for the zillions or drug deals and kidnappings that got coordinated over their system.
(2) Lack of viral potential means the possibility of inciting violence, cyber bullying, and other negative consequences of mass internet communication is diminished.
Both of these points have a correlating contention about censorship on Twitter, Facebook, etc: they (not the government) ought to censor content that has the potential for negative outcomes like those I mentioned. Is it difficult? Absolutely. Will there be disagreements? For sure. But, they can afford to figure it out, and our society can’t afford for them to not to.
NB: We need nuance and reasoning here. Falling back on first principles and calling it a day is not enough; those principles were articulated at a time where speech replication depended on industrial machines and were limited by how fast a pony could run. We’re talking the ability to beam information practically into every child’s brain 24/7 anywhere on the planet using psychological tricks to engage them.
I think national news stations are not an apt comparison, since they have faces. This user, for all intents and purposes, exists only in text and non-personal image posts. For that reason -- the lack of "personal connection" that voice and face provide -- upvotes are reasonable proxy for "like" and "approval".
I contend that people don't "dislike" this user specifically, but actually "dislike" the idea that the content they are consuming comes not from many original minds, but a few minds copying the same content over and over. As I pointed out in my original comment, this is the entire platform! What people dislike is not the user, but the entire system.
In that regard, it is possible for a medium to generate interest and attention while actively attempting to exploit or manipulate its viewers, because that's what Reddit does. It's a classic attention merchant.
Huh? 98.1% of users don't post [0]. The user mentioned in the article has the most points of anyone, meaning their posts have the most votes. That doesn't indicate dislike. Quite the opposite, actually.
Was there a poll about this user to gauge sentiment?
[0]https://www.reddit.com/r/dataisbeautiful/comments/b5f9wi/let...