65 karma · joined November 8, 2020
Currently, about one in 4000 Scots is hospitalized, which says that approximately only one in 40 Scots directly knows someone hospitalized with COVID, assuming they know 100 people each.
However, the chance of directly knowing someone that had a positive COVID test is 1 in 40, which says most Scots will know someone who had a mild case of COVID.
This reminds me of the speculative rationalizations that are given after-the-fact whenever the stock market rises or falls.
So let me chime in with the speculation:
The biggest factor is probably the realization that COVID is not as big a personal risk as feared, no matter what the media or the government says. People are gladly using COVID as an excuse to work from home or avoid meeting their elderly relatives, but when it comes to avoiding infection in order to save "the system", enough people simply don't care anymore. It's too abstract.
What makes you so certain about it? Is this not simply what you would like to believe, because you desire some form of cosmic justice?
If bullying was simply dominating behavior, it should be generally directed at anyone, yet it more commonly affects the stereotypical nerd.
In any case, this isn't to give credit to bullies. There is no credit to be given for behavior that I consider innate.
What are the assessments of the HN crowd?
Bullies instinctively realize that there's an unusually smart person in their tribe who is wasting their gift on fruitless endeavors, thus reducing the survival chances of the tribe.
Of course, our modern society can afford to have smart people play chess. However, there is no evidence that chess skill transfers to other areas. Therefore, until proven otherwise, developing chess skill should be perceived as frivolous, just like developing skill in any other less prestigious game.
Can you provide a reference for that assertion? I tried to find it myself, the best thing I found is this blog post, describing the wording "independently certified" as curious:
https://excessofdemocracy.com/blog/2020/10/what-does-it-mean...
This is useful in a time where taking some stance can cost you your job or career, even years down the line.
However, it's unfortunate that instead of showing up- and downvotes, negative-scored comments turn grey. There is no distinction between a universally disliked comment and a controversial comment.
Let's focus on the falsifiability: What would a candidate have to do in order to disprove the accusation?
If there isn't a clear answer to that question, then how is this tactic materially different from name-calling?
https://www.factcheck.org/2020/02/trump-has-condemned-white-...
https://www.bbc.com/news/election-us-2020-54381500
> I've seen him refuse to denounce white supremacy in the first debate...
That was clearly a missed opportunity to clear things up, but the counter-question "Who do you want me to condemn?" is a fair one. It's easy for Trump to condemn the KKK, not so easy to condemn militia groups in general. Similarly, it's easy for Biden to condemn rioters, not so easy to condemn Antifa in general. Effectively, both candidates dodged that question.
> ... I haven't seen him denounce anyone who might vote for him.
That's moving the goalpost a bit too far for my taste. Trump has condemned white supremacists, that at least is on the record.
A small act can't support itself from licensing fees alone either way, it would make sense to settle for less, or waive fees entirely, just to increase exposure.
If all you wanted was a streaming platform that didn't have all these major artists on it, it could be provided for much less than £15.
There are extremists on the right, Trump disavowed them publicly.
Nevertheless, media commentators on either side try to portrait these candidates as if they supported, or at least "enabled" extremists.
Can you be more specific on how either of these candidates "enable" or "do not enable" extremism? How would you falsify an accusation of "enabling" something?