1,739 karma · joined October 27, 2010
How so? Load means number of virus particles. Number of virus particles increases with the number of replication cycles. The probability of mutation increases with the number of replications. So, same number of replication cycles, (roughly) same chance of mutation.
Here[0]'s a study from Nov 19th, saying that:
No significant differences were detected in duration of RT-PCR positivity among fully vaccinated participants (median: 13 days) versus those not fully vaccinated (median: 13 days; p=0.50), or in duration of culture positivity (medians: 5 days and 5 days; p=0.29).
[0] - https://www.medrxiv.org/content/10.1101/2021.11.12.21265796v...
Please provide some citations to back up your claims.
This doesn't seem to be the case⁰:
A new study from the University of California, Davis, Genome Center, UC San Francisco and the Chan Zuckerberg Biohub shows no significant difference in viral load between vaccinated and unvaccinated people who tested positive for the delta variant of SARS-CoV-2. It also found no significant difference between infected people with or without symptoms.
When they analyzed the data, the researchers found wide variations in viral load within both vaccinated and unvaccinated groups, but not between them. There was no significant difference in viral load between vaccinated and unvaccinated, or between asymptomatic and symptomatic groups.
⓪ - https://www.ucdavis.edu/health/covid-19/news/viral-loads-sim... (Link to study in the article)
I don't understand how this could be. Studies have shown that peak viral load is the same for vaccinated/unvaccinated, that means roughly the same number of replicative cycles in vaccinated as in unvaccinated. Each replication is a chance for the virus to aquire mutations, so same number of replicative cycles in vaccinated/unvaccinated means same rate of mutation in vaccinated/unvaccinated.
Not to mention how difficult it would be to distinguish past from present.
The technology to make monoclonal antibodies is simpler than that for mRNA vaccines.
> That's also the reason they tend to be so expensive
Economies of scale play a big role. At similar scale mab should be cheaper than mRNA.
This is not correct. See my other comment in the thread.
I'm sorry you had that experience. I have a friend who had a similar experience (4 agonizing days) after his second Moderna dose and swore the he will not get a third one. Based on that I have to believe it was truly awful.
One the other hand I have several other friends who were quite fine afer Moderna. I wish we had the means to distinguish between the two groups, so nobody else has to endure what you did.
Unless, the vaccine causes a "reprogramming" of the immune system, like some viruses do.
Have you considered this vector in your analysis?
Please provide a citation for this claim. My reading of the EMA page for Conditional Marketing Authorization states: "Its use is also intended for a public health emergency (e.g. a pandemic). _For these medicines, less comprehensive pharmaceutical and non-clinical data may also be accepted_".
The fact that less comprehensive farmaceutical data is accepted for CMA leads me to believe they are experimental.
You, fundamentally, do not understand how antibodies work.
Just as with the antibodies from a vaccine, if the monoclonal antibodies are in your blood before contact with an infected person you will not get sick. So, monoclonal antibodies can be used profilactically, if so desired.
Their cost, as well as the cost of monoclonal antibodies, depends on the economies of scale.
Monoclonal antibodies are easier to produce than mRNA vaccines, so at similar production scale should be cheaper.
This is false. There are treatments available, like monoclonal antibodies, they just have not been publicized as much.
Somebody, somewhere made a choice to push the vaccines and not the monoclonal antibodies. As an interesting fact, before the pandemic the knowledge to produce the nanolipid capsule existed in only 2 small companies worldwide. Big scale facilities for producing the nanolipid particles necessary for the mRNA vaccines were non-existent, they had to be built. Just as well, facilities for producing monoclonal antibodies en-masse could have been built, but were not.
With regards to the open borders, most of the EEA has open borders, Gibraltar is not special in that regard.
That doesn't seem to be the case in Gibraltar. There is a ~100% vaccination rate there and an increased number of infections recently.
> The infectious period varies a bit from person to person but it is considered that an adult with flu starts being able to pass on the infection from during the day before their symptoms appear and then they remain potentially infectious for three to five days. The start is probably the same for children but it is often stated that it runs on for up to seven days after onset.
> However, the risk to others is not constant throughout. Infectiousness rises steeply when the person starts feeling unwell and that is when he or she is most dangerous to others. The risk of catching influenza from someone even just before they become ill and after the end of the first three days is quite low.