378 karma · joined May 15, 2016
It's the physicians job to weigh the benefits against risk of a drug. And potential allergic reactions is a part of that. If a patient with a known history of severe allergic reactions gets another one from a prescribed drug, and the physician hasn't done their due diligence, then the physician could be at fault. I can only imagine that it's even more prudent for US-based physicians to ask that question due to lawsuits and or personal liability.
Also a patients medical status is never static. While unlikely a patient could have had a reaction since the last visit. I guess a more realistic example of something non static is pregnancy status which can be equally important when prescribing drugs etc.
“We found that exposure to higher levels of electromagnetic field strength changed the number of blood cells in the crabs" - is it the EMF or rather physical inactivity that reduces the cell count?
I have some experience with recombinant yeast and PTMs. Degree of glycosylation actually vary a lot depending on strain used and has a huge effect of protein activity. And of course these PTMs affects the crystal structure.
Anecdotally through medical school I've heard that there is evidence that antibiotic overuse in livestock, contrary to intuition, has no correlation with antibiotic resistance of human pathogens.
While I may agree with the grammatical merits [1)] I'm not convinced (yet). The second argument [2)] that it's never had a historical plural doesn't hold up. The field of virology is much more recent so the need for a plural 'virus' didn't exist at the time.
And 3) is literally how words are formed. If a term used frequently enough it eventually becomes a word regardless of the original grammatical correctness. The term even has 175 years of precedent.[2] As cactus has the plural cacti it's non-obvious why the same doesn't hold true for virus.
[1] https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Plural_form_of_words_ending_in... [2] https://archive.org/details/homopathictreati00test/page/48/m...