> "absence of evidence is not evidence of absence"
That's the same false argument that the religious have offered for their beliefs and was debunked by Bertrand Russell's teapot argument: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Russell%27s_teapot
That's the same false argument that the religious have offered for their beliefs and was debunked by Bertrand Russell's teapot argument: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Russell%27s_teapot
I'm saying that I think this is an important enough question that I think we should seek real evidence in either direction, especially since apparently everyone already has a strong opinion (warranted or not.)