First, when PG compare wealth of rich persons, he does not just compare salaries but the total wealth that come from the total of incomes.
Second, there is something not to forget about the stocks:
It is a "right" to the proportional part of all the future financial results of the company.
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So, let's forget about inflation and consider equivalent dollars:
Imagine you have a 30 employees company, that will generate 1000$ of income. Of these 1000$, there is a 50% margin, so it remains 500$ of benefit.
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In 1965:
- Boss will have a salary of 200$
- 30 employees total wages of 300$ (so 10$ per person)
- Net result of 0$ (total of stocks, going to the boss anyway)
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In 2017, same company and conditions:
- Boss will have a salary of 50$
- 30 employees total wages of 19,23$ (so 0,64$ per person)
- Net result of 430,77$
The net result belongs to Boss + other shareholders.
-> boss get: 150$
-> other shareholders get: 280,77$
(So in result 200$ for the boss, 0,64$ per employee, 312-1 ratio)
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Some people will say that the stocks value, based on valuation, does not correspond to 1 year of revenue.
So, for example a 100$ stocks might correspond to an expectation of 10 years of 10$ benefit.
But, on the previous article the 312-1 ratio corresponds to a year compensation, that is repeated every year. So it means that as a boss, you will also get new stocks or bigger capital for your stock every year to have this ratio maintained.