It seems then based on your reply that my friend is possibly wrong for invoking Bayesian theory regarding the Monty Hall problem for the exact reason he claimed it was the only answer? (note, my friend is a brilliant person and dedicated engineer who understands math far above my level. I only program with statistics and the PhD's tell me what to do.)
In other words, his argument is incorrect in his assessment because we actually _do_ have previous knowledge? (He pointed out that Bayes theorum was used for analysing insurance premiums for new kinds of insurance because there was no previous data to work with, which fits with your statement.)
This seems like too easy an answer for him to have missed, which makes me suspect of my understanding of your reply.
(yes, my initial question was serious, I appreciate you replying)