I find the wikipedia link about lesbian domestic violence so interesting, especially due to the all the well-sourced text it devotes to the fact that it's not actually possible to state anything with certainty about the prevalence of same-sex domestic violence! So - I wonder, what conclusion were you hoping a reader would draw from that source?
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The link to the study from 1992 about "gay pedophilia rates" is super intriguing. I mean, consider the first line of the abstract: "Previous investigations have indicated that the ratio of sex offenders against female children vs. offenders against male children is approximately 2:1" - or from a bit further in the abstract: "the ratio of heterosexual to homosexual pedophiles was calculated to be approximately 11:1".
I presume you have read the second-to-last line of the abstract: "This suggests that the resulting proportion of true pedophiles among persons with a homosexual erotic development is greater than that in persons who develop heterosexually."
But what should we make of the final line of the abstract: "This, of course, would not indicate that androphilic males have a greater propensity to offend against children."
I mean, it seems like the study is actually stating that despite an over-prevalence of homosexuals in the pedophilic group, that they still don't make up the majority of pedophiles?
(I suppose we can ignore the fact that Freund himself advocated for homosexuality to be decriminalized)
(I suppose we'd also have to ignore the fact that Freund himself published studies claiming precisely the opposite of what you've claimed here, and even references those results in this paper).
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The paper about childhood trauma is also so interesting. I assume you read this line from the abstract: "Epidemiological studies find a positive association between physical and sexual abuse, neglect, and witnessing violence in childhood and same-sex sexuality in adulthood"
What do you make of the remainder of that same line from the abstract: "but studies directly assessing the association between these diverse types of maltreatment and sexuality cannot disentangle the causal direction because the sequencing of maltreatment and emerging sexuality is difficult to ascertain."
Or this really intriguing alternate explanation for the results, from the second line of the abstract: "Nascent same-sex orientation may increase risk of maltreatment"
I mean ... what should we think about the fact that the authors themselves are indicating up-front that their study may not, in fact, prove that childhood abuse makes people gay? Or their assertion that you simply cannot draw a causal relationship between these two things, only a correlative relationship?
Or the fact that the study finds the percentage difference amounts to approximately 2%, which just seems pretty small?
What, exactly, do you think this study is purporting to tell us?
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My friend, your critical reading skills need a lot of work. You're simply listing articles that you think confirm your priors, without actually reading them at all.