Can you draw the link from central bankers operations to the inflow of cash to VC's? Because most CB operations are either setting rates (where I understand they at least have to stay in between some bandwidth the market will appreciate, or else face a situation like Switzerland), or transactions buying assets (mainly bonds).

Both do not directly accomplish the inflow of money into VC. VC's don't leverage (no banking license). I guess VC-firms don't borrow money at 1%, because no collateral?