Trademark law probably says yes.
You can't just see a domain you like, go register a trademark for it and demand they give it to you. Atleast not for .com.
Doesn't matter if someone simply owned property with that name prior to the trademark. The test is more complex than that.
Basically if you are using an unregistered-trademark which is then later registered you are not considered to be infriging if you have been using this trademark before the trademark was registered.
Cyber squatting laws specifically call out that you need to have obtained the name with ill intent (i.e with intent to ransom it to an already registed trademark holder).
So no, that is not how trademark works, atleast in the codes of law I am familiar with.