'Projection' also has no intuitive (EDIT: I meant 'intrinsic') meaning; "inner product" is the same structure as "projection + norm" (subject to appropriate axioms). Anyway, I didn't mean to claim that the definition was arbitrary, but rather that there was no way to argue against it: definitions can't be wrong (at worst, they can be infelicitous, uninteresting, or uninhabited).
> Intuitively, sum(f_i * g_i).
I think rndn (https://news.ycombinator.com/item?id=9621422 )'s objection applies to this intuition: to get a reasonable approximation of the integral, you need a lot of sample points, and any sum that doesn't take into account the spacing of those sample points has a good chance of diverging. (Consider f = g = 1, so that the sum is just a count of the number of sample points!)
Once you write sum(f(x_i) * g(x_i) * (dx)_i), of course, this becomes just notation for (a sequence of) Riemann sums, whose limit is by definition the integral (for continuous functions).
Indeed, I don't understand how it could be otherwise. To multiply functions pointwise, you need to know their values at points. It seems to me that 'sampling' is a very good word to describe the process of evaluating a function at a lot of points.
> as could "with respect to x", but the Calculus Gods will smite any who think of dx as a sample of x
Indeed not! It is the spacing between sample points. That is, the `dx` in an integral literally stands for the "ghost of [the] departed quantity" `x_{i + 1} - x_i` (and, in an infinitesimal approach to calculus, it doesn't just stand for but literally is such a difference).