Surely it must be by induction. Since n+1 is always countable, n+2 must similarly be.
However, this doesn't work for the product of A with itself countably-many times. Your induction never "reaches" infinity; it only shows that it works for any finite number n. Sure, there are infinitely-many such n, but every single natural number is finite.
0 < 1
For any natural n, if n-1 < n, then n < n+1
(proof: add 1 to both sides of the given inequality)
By induction, for all natural n, n < n+1
But clearly this does not work for infinity, because ∞-1 = ∞ = ∞+1. So induction proves something about all natural numbers, but ∞ is not a natural number.There is a thing called transfinite induction, and there you have to show the separate case that if predicate P holds for all n_i then it holds for the limit. As stated elsewhere you can't do that in this case because it's not true. 2^(oo) is uncountable.
> Am I missing something here?
Yes. You are forming perfectly reasonable conjectures based on limited experience, but those conjectures turn out to be false when you study the subject in its own right, instead of just those bits you need for the limited version of calculus that you've done. It's a problem I often have when teaching people this stuff that they have only ever dealt with "nice" functions and "easy" situations. I wrote a little about that here:http://www.solipsys.co.uk/new/PokingTheDustyCorners.html?HN_...