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Why do you think the likelihood is very small?

Has there been research?

Groups who are or expect to be treated differently will behave differently. Groups who are specifically taught to behave differently will also behave differently.

Are both of those really that unlikely?

We have arguments here all the time about perceived vs actual sexism or the effects of cultural gender norms, and have female-specific business self-help books.

I think there's certainly a likelihood that men and women are different, and that not every perceived difference is sexism.