"(02) It has a propensity to make the richer richer and the poorer poorer."
The poor in the first world are richer than the rich were for most of history. The poor in the third world are no poorer than in the past.
So no.
The poor in the first world are richer than the rich were for most of history. The poor in the third world are no poorer than in the past.
So no.
So yes.
If you want, pick a standard of absolute wealth and try to argue that the rest of my statement isn't true.