> It’s just not plausible that this increase in the concentration of income from capital doesn’t reflect a more or less comparable increase in the concentration of capital itself.
Also, given that he has this sentence, I don't think Krugman is trying to deceptively confuse capital income and wealth.
Also, the report that Krugman links to ( http://www.cbo.gov/publication/42729 ) seems to show a significant change (yes, in income not wealth) among the top 1%, which does seem to be a change "among the richest people". How am I misinterpreting this report?