If the vote counts are not fabricated, but results of a manipulated process (i.e. miscounting votes), wouldn't that mean that Benford's law still applies?
If the vote counts are not fabricated, but results of a manipulated process (i.e. miscounting votes), wouldn't that mean that Benford's law still applies?
If a manipulated process generated such a distribution then it would satisfy Benford's law.
However, it isn't clear to me apriori why election returns should satisfy Benford's law, so I'm unsure why this test is meaningful to begin with.
http://www-personal.umich.edu/~wmebane/
While searching for him I see that he's written a paper very similar to my little experiment about the Iranian election: http://www.umich.edu/~wmebane/note17jun2009.pdf
Is it me, or couldn't he just say "Looked at this using Benford's Law. Can't say one way or the other."?
An "Executive Summary" at the beginning would have saved time for many readers, I believe.
Very cool law though, it will come in useful in the future.