Speaking as a lawyer familiar with both english and US law:
English contract law is a bit different than US. In the US, it's not objective in general (contracts are held against the drafter, and subjective intent matters).
Your description of objective intent is well, not intent in this case :)
Objective intent of congress would be what a reasonable person making the statute would have meant, not what a reasonable person reading the statute would think it meant.
The second is in fact, what is done, but is not related to intent at all, it's related to interpretation.
As for congress's intent, Scalia is of the firm view that either objective intent, or subjective intent does not matter. The words mean what they say, and say what they mean, and if they don't, that's a problem for the legislature.
In cases of ambiguity, he believes in plain meaning, not objective intent. So he'll use a dictionary, not try to figure out what congress objectively meant.
He's fairly unwavering in the above, though if you look through hundreds of opinions, you can generally find one or two that are not consistent with this.
http://www.claremontmckenna.edu/salvatori/publications/RARSc... and http://scholarship.law.duke.edu/cgi/viewcontent.cgi?article=... are fairly good descriptions of his approach