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This article gives an argument I haven't seen before: legally available guns in the US crowd out illegal military weapons. The author offers evidence that fully automatic weapons are much more common in Mexico, where gun laws are stricter than the US.

This seems like a parallel with drug legalization. If 'all' drugs are illegal, there is less of a differentiation between hard and soft drugs. Is this true, and if so does this apply to guns as well?

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this doesn't belong here, please read the guidelines. It's also so preposterous that I'm marking it off as a troll.

It's not a troll. I'm a US hunter who is not particularly in favor of guns for personal protection. I've spent some time living close to Juarez, Chihuahua, which is a significantly more violent city than neighboring El Paso, Texas. I'm very interested in explanations of why this is the case, and have never seen this particular argument before.

For me, this falls in the category "anything that gratifies one's intellectual curiosity" and "evidence of some interesting new phenomenon". Thus I disagree that it is inappropriate. Interestingly, I also found a guideline "Please don't submit comments complaining that a submission is inappropriate for the site."

wtf is your problem?

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