I don't think this is a reasonable deformation of the notion of ownership nor externalities.
Use of owned assets, within legal boundaries, allows exclusive of use.
If you're complaint is about the current asset allocation, that's wildly different than either Georgism/LVT or externalities. There is a philosophical there-there, but I really don't grok a feasible defense of your claim; your supporting points are reasonable under a Rawlsian veil defense.