> support your point with explanation or be ignored :-)
Anyone who says "Godel theorems are for systems with basic arithmetic, zfc doesn't include arithmetic, thus are not object of Godel theorems" and isn't joking warrants a permanent ignore.
https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/1366560/why-does-g%...
https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/1090437/how-to-prov...
I've seen a lot of bad faith on this site, but none exceeding that.
I said I am not expert, I am indeed not expert in zfc and godel theorems, but I am an expert (phd) in actual formalization theory. Formal theory is very simple concept: its alphabet, set of formulas on top of this alphabet, and function which translates one formula to another.
ZFC can't "obtain" peano, simply because it doesn't have say * operator defined. You need to do something on top of it. Additionally, zfc itself looks like loosely formalized say in wikipedia (and I am not sure if there is any strict formalization anywhere), we take it as common sense that it can utilize some simple logical rules (e.g. modus ponens), but what are exactly rules, which could be separate topic of research, this detail is skipped.
I am aware, also I am not sure why you wrote all of this. Your unknown to me "first course" claims to be some authority of formalization purity?
> what are exactly rules, which could be separate topic of research, this detail is skipped
I am now confident you’re a troll, though, so I am going to bow out.