I think you meant premise?
... of course there's no single line that all the points lie on. They've been defined to be non-collinear.
Edit: can't reply because of HN's stupid rate-limit mechanism, but to this:
>So the theorem proves that no matter which way you arrange any finite set of points, except for all on the same line, then you can always find a line with exactly two points.
Of course you can. It's absolutely implied by the problem definition. My 9 year old could do this, given a ruler and a pencil, with 100% success rate. I absolutely do not believe this is a novel "theorem"
There isn't a third point on the line you found because the problem stipulates that the set of points is not collinear.
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If you're given the above set of points, it's obviously not collinear due to the point at the top, but if you draw a line through any of the bottom two points, it will hit a third.
So the theorem proves that no matter which way you arrange any finite set of points, except for all on the same line, then you can always find a line with exactly two points.
In any finite set of points, either there is a line hitting all points, or there is a line hitting exactly 2 points.
It's nontrivial to prove.