Just curious, where would you say the line is between “police state” and “a state with police”
I'm not the one you asked, but: Me, personally, I'd draw the line at the independence of the courts. If the courts are independent, if they can rule against the police for failure to prove their case or for procedural violations or whatever, then it's not a police state. If the police win the borderline cases (or worse, the clearly bogus cases) just because they're the police, then it's a police state.
Followup question:
Do you think public defenders are given adequate funding to ensure they can give proper defense to their clients?