Anyone more econ literate know why Coase isn't trivially answered by accounting for corporate time-discounting? Maybe I'm missing something, but this always confused me.
Generally, the assumption is that everybody in the market is aware of what's going on, and can adjust their spending accordingly.
Unless you mean discounted future cashflows of purchases, but that would imply by charging a low enough price all future purchases would move to the present.
I'd consider the case of laundry machines. People buy them every so often and then don't need a new one for awhile. Since they didn't buy them all at the same time in the past, one should not expect they will buy them all at once in the future. It seems profit maximizing to behave like traditional monopoly theory, to keep the price high. Is there an economic pressure that would push a monopolist's prices down?