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Yes, the First Amendment applies to all people within the territory of the United States equally. US law does not limit the political speech of non-citizens present on visas.

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Do you feel that way about the second amendment too? Just curious if we’re picking and choosing what visitors can legally do. What if SCOTUS said that people means citizens and not visitors for guns, don’t you think that would apply to visa, immigrants, or visitors as well?

I think in the second amendment "the people" are quite clearly the citizens so they can secure their own "free" state. Where the first amendment is about limiting what the government can do so they can't make laws against free speech.

How odd that one amendment away the word “people” has two different meanings.

it doesn't. Read the first amendment carefully. People is only used in one specific part, the bulk is about limiting what the lawmakers can do. free speech has no reference to "people"

All amendments are about what limiting lawmakers can do. Even the second.

People is only used in one specific part… ok?

How does that square your idea of 1A with SCOTUS being very recently clear on 2A not immediately applying to non-citizens?

Unfortunately this SCOTUS is not comprised of those who the founders intended would sit on it.

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