> The $1 is measured in international dollars. This means it buys the same amount of goods and services in any country as a US dollar does in the United States. It is often used alongside purchasing power parity (PPP) data. The “time” refers to a day of life for anyone, at any age and in any circumstance — not just the hours worked by someone with a job.

So IIUC this "average poverty" (measured in time per international dollar) includes people living off social welfare? Otherwise, if it only included the working population, wouldn't we have

  average poverty ≝ (average yearly income* of the working population / 1yr)⁻¹

and so it should be inversely proportional to the average yearly income* metric mentioned in the article?

*) Adjusted for purchasing power, i.e. measured in international dollars.