There is no burden of proof on me, because I'm not asserting that AI has invented something on its own. I haven't told you what my view is or whether I ever have a view.

The problem with the reasoning of the person I was responding to is that it's assuming "if X is in the training set and LLM outputs X, then it did so because X is in the training set". That does not follow. Conceivably it's possible that X is in the training set and LLM outputs X, but if X hadn't been in the training set the LLM also would've output X.

Lets look at that phrase again:

> Why do we think this emerged “on its own”? Surely this technique has been discussed in research papers that are in the training set.

This phrase implies "if X was in the training set, then LLM couldn't have come up with X on its own". This is false. In fact, my claim that the implication is false is testable, in the following manner: Have two training sets, T and T'. In T, X is present. In T' you've removed X but left X-adjacent things. Train LLM A on T and A' on T'. Find a prompt that requires that A outputs X. If on the same prompt A' also outputs X, that's an example of my claim. To repeat, my claim is "it's possible that X is in the training set and LLM outputs X, but if X hadn't been in the training set the LLM also would've output X."

In fact, I've just realized I even have a method for constructing (T, T') that guarantees what I've described. Not sure if it's worth a paper on its own though.