So sewage wasn't dumped, because the law prevented it? Or sewage was dumped, and it was against the law?
I'm having a hard time reconciling the theoretical claims made in the thread with the blinding light of what actually happened.
I'm having a hard time reconciling the theoretical claims made in the thread with the blinding light of what actually happened.
Many people claim these things happen because "shareholders" however it was completely widespread practice to dump sewage before privatisation and the system is literally designed to do so. This doesn't make it OK, however.
Sure, the sewers might not currently be designed that way, but that can be changed. (It's a logistical challenge, but it needs to be done.)
How does it add anything to the conversation?
That’s true for all organizations.