I don't understand why this article is written as though amortization of R&D spending's costs is the same as completely eliminating their tax benefit. It seems that this essentially causes a large spike in tax revenue in year 0, which will revert to the mean in years 5-15. Companies now amortizing R&D essentially just have to build up those years of R&D spending backlog. Once they have reached their amortization threshold, they're essentially receiving the same tax break they had before.

Right?