Not true:
While frame as "the holy first democratic state", most people were excluded: The ones who were allowed to vote/elect, were mainly the rich upperclass, Women, Slaves, Children etc. weren allowed to participate / attend.
The only way in which this is relevant is if the populations of voters are different in ways that affect the voting mechanism. For all we care they could have been warlord cannibals: all that matters is that we can use the same mechanism.
I mean, if the oppressed where allowed to vote in free and fair elections then they would likely have been oppressed less.
The election of the GOP in the States recently seems to offer a counter to your view.
yes, but at the time, they were considered property. With the system the way it currently is, only the rich get to play.