> “Western politicians do not appear to be strong-arming the nerds to produce favourable numbers. At the same time, international statistical bodies worry about the example of Dominik Rozkrut, who at the end of last year was mysteriously dismissed as Poland’s chief statistician.”
At the same time as not strong arming these bodies, at least one might be? What is the implication here?
> “Economic “surprises” in rich countries, where the reported data point either beats or falls short of analysts’ expectations, soared during the pandemic. Years later, surprises remain 30% bigger than before it. The confusion represents a reversal of a trend. In 1941 Britain’s…”
How is less trust/revisions in the data today connected with what Britain was doing 70+ years ago? We seem to just have two things said next to each other as if they were related?
Am I just being dumb or is this just ramblings, whether or not you agree with the headline?