> While I am reluctant to suggest that the courts require specific performance (continuing to work) for employment contracts, awarding damages to the other party does not seem terrible.
Why are you assuming that "employees" will sign such contracts?
Suppose someone shows up to work. How does the court determine whether they're working per contract? (If someone says "I don't have any patentable inventions this month", do you think that they should be penalized?)
CA allows non-competes in certain circumstances.