This is a well-known fact with a well-established genetic basis. For pretty much any trait, the standard deviation of the distribution for men is larger than the distribution for women.
I guess you live up to your username, though not the most flattering interpretation of it :D :D
If there are studies that prove this, can i see them? And are there equivalent studies on populations of women? Or is this a Kodak situation where there’s just at best an assumption based on existing biases?