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There's quite a few assumptions in your comment; one, that men have higher grades of neurodivergece than women (whereas it can also be underdiagnosis or masking through higher societal expectations on women). Women are eccentric too.

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Men are more dissimilar from one another, generally, than women are from one another. Sorry.

This is a well-known fact with a well-established genetic basis. For pretty much any trait, the standard deviation of the distribution for men is larger than the distribution for women.

Bold claim with no sources there

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Variability_hypothesis

I guess you live up to your username, though not the most flattering interpretation of it :D :D

If there are studies that prove this, can i see them? And are there equivalent studies on populations of women? Or is this a Kodak situation where there’s just at best an assumption based on existing biases?

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