This is largely all new to me, but this section defining pleasure within your link does seem to align with what GP is saying:
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Epicureanism#Pleasure
> Epicureans had a very specific understanding of what the greatest pleasure was, and the focus of their ethics was on the avoidance of pain rather than seeking out pleasure.
So whether the description of the work (as GP critiques) is correct, really comes down to whether the definition of 'pleasure' used is as in Epicureanism. Certainly someone unfamiliar would misunderstand it.