> is caused by genetic sensitivity to DHT and DHT levels in the body, not aging
Is the formula something like: DHT sensitivity * time = hair loss ?
Is the formula something like: DHT sensitivity * time = hair loss ?
DHT damages the hair follicles that are sensitive to it, causing them to grow back thinner after each growth and shedding cycle (which is typically a few years). As a result most men don't have visible hair loss until years after puberty kicks in.
https://pubmed.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/28711970/
The occurrence of a genetic background in the etiology of polycystic ovarian syndrome (PCOS) represents the rational basis to postulate the existence of a male PCOS equivalent. Hormonal and metabolic abnormalities have been described in male relatives of women with PCOS. These males also have a higher prevalence of early onset (<35 years) androgenetic alopecia (AGA).
Hence, this feature has been proposed as a clinical sign of the male PCOS equivalent.
Clinical evidence has shown that men with early onset AGA have hormonal and metabolic abnormalities. Large cohort studies have clearly shown a higher prevalence of type II diabetes mellitus (DM II) and cardiovascular diseases (CVDs) in elderly men with early onset AGA. In addition, prostate cancer, benign prostate hyperplasia (BPH) and prostatitis have been described.
These findings support the existence of the male PCOS equivalent, which may represent an endocrine syndrome with a metabolic background, and might predispose to the development of DM II, CVDs, prostate cancer, BPH and prostatitis later in life. Its acknowledgment would be helpful for the prevention of these long-term complications.Maybe in the past the fact that someone had survived long enough to go bald or grow a big beard would signal that they had the skill or hardiness to avoid dying young, which might make them more attractive and likely to pass on the gene.