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Is this really the case? It's very uncommon for an IP to resolve to an actual user these days due to widespread use of Carrier-Grade Networks Address Translation (CGNAT).

Assuming you had the public IP of an actual user though, how would you link it to a person without asking the ISP?

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According to case law it is personal information; Because in realistic scenario's you can use it in combination with some other data, such as from the browser headers, to identity someone with a high degree of accuracy.

Ofcourse this evolves as the landscape changes. And it isn't always the case. But the comment is accurate.

Yes. See https://commission.europa.eu/law/law-topic/data-protection/r...

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