(For simplicity, let's assume a household with a single earner of $47k / £30k.)
Sort of, but not exactly. I was implying that a household with that income would be making close to a median contribution to the tax base so, purely in my own opinion, would be paying a "fair share" in absolute terms. That is, they should not be either highly subsidized or a major contributor. But.. let's run the numbers to see if my hunch is wrong! :-)
Said household would have a gross income of £30000, pay £4505 in income taxes, pay £2732 in "national insurance" (ostensibly to fund social security, sick pay, and various benefits), and be left with £22,762, or 75.9% of pre-tax income.
(A "hidden" part to this is that (most) employers also make employer "national insurance" contributions, in this case of £3164 so it could be argued this is a hidden salary cost for employees.)
The total NHS budget in 2008/2009 was £94bn and there are around 25 million households in the UK. This gives an expense of £3760 per household or 36% of the total earned in direct taxation on our imagined household. This is double the percentage of the national budget dedicated to health, so my initial assumption may have been wrong.
However, with indirect taxation, especially VAT at 20% and high fuel duties, and subtracting the contribution of things like corporation taxes to the tax base, the total tax paid vs the absolute "fair share" is likely to come pretty close for this family.
Sorry if this is boring but I was intrigued and thought I'd look into it! :-)