LOL so according to your logic, although they both systematically vilified ALL protestors for months but haven't explicitly used the word "all" that is enough plausible deniability tho the smear is indiscriminate? So then we can also go through Nazi propaganda and every time it fails to include the word "all" we can assume that the Nazis didn't mean the peaceful jews, just some specific jews!? You simply want to argue for the sake of it, any sane person sees it for what it is - an attempt to vilify ALL protestors, like they have done consistently for decades.
Zionists systematically vilified ALL protestors and pro-israel media explicitly described peaceful marches as "hate marches". You're playing devil's advocate but you are doing a terrible job at it and I don't even need to take into account the history of both accounts to prove my point because it's so obvious to anybody who isn't hell-bent on denying the obvious.