No, it's not. The observation that agriculture developed independently along the Tigris/Euphrates, the Yangtzee, the Indus, Sub-Saharan Africa, Mesoamerica, Peru, and several other places is indisputable and proven by the human-influenced domestication of local plants over thousands of years and the lack of any evidence of communication between those cultures when domestication began. If you're simply trying to make the case that no culture which develops a technology matters besides whichever culture ended up most dominant, it's an absurd point because all of them influenced each other bilaterally (that means both ways) when they came into contact. Corn and tomatoes were domesticated in Mesoamerica and wheat was domesticated from a grass in Mesopotamia. All are now worldwide staples. Without agriculture having developed independently in numerous places and NOT being wiped out by other technologies, one or the other of those would not exist. Have you had a Kung Pao chicken satined with corn flour? Or a corn tortilla around steak? Or spaghetti with marinara sauce? None of those combinations was possible a mere 524 years ago.