Also, is the new basis orthogonal to the original, or just another orthonormal basis? I don't see why it would be orthogonal to the original.
Also, is the new basis orthogonal to the original, or just another orthonormal basis? I don't see why it would be orthogonal to the original.
This also explains why the forward transform has a minus and the inverse doesn't: a complex dot product sums over complexConjugate(v_i)*w_i, while the inverse/reconstruction just sums over the basis exponentials scaled by the Fourier coefficient for that frequency.
You can also prove that the sum over all imaginary exponentials is Dirac delta[1], so you could think of the inverse transform as being a dot product with delta to get the function at a specific time, and that dot product is a sum over the frequency basis.
[0] https://news.ycombinator.com/item?id=38658312
[1] https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/1343859/why-does-in...