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As a rule of thumb, the apparent politeness of the language is inversely proportional to the potential violence of the culture it comes from.

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Can you give some examples, because I’m not sure that’s true. Modern Japan is famously polite and their crime rates are quite low. Likewise, I grew up in a Quaker community that is exceptionally polite and nonviolent.

I think they'd agree with that example. If we take their quote and invert it:

> apparent politeness of the language is inversely proportional to the potential violence of the culture

=> apparent politeness of language directly proportional to the peacefulness of the culture

Japan may not be the best example. Their history of politeness extends from the extreme violence of the samurai era.

Up through the age when they nearly took over the Pacific and their wartime tactics were known for brutality

Case in point: countries with high levels of gun violence. You never know when an unhinged person might unload into you.

Not really a concrete case but an abstract and plausible-sounding hypothetical

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