I don't think that's the case?
Edit: I get it now, under repetition the probability distribution of the second urn could be inferred, and the gambler could use this information to bet on the more frequent color. However, the Ellsberg paradox only says we prefer known distributions to unknown ones, and under repetition the distributions of both urns would be known. So it doesn't say people would prefer betting on the first urn in the repetition case.