I'm curious how they isolated the effect of race (but I can't read the paper, so, I dunno) among other signs. If they even did—the abstract doesn't make it clear to me that they're claiming race is the causal factor, but may just be observing that distance correlates with the race of the subjects (for whatever reason).
[EDIT] cpitman's link elsewhere in the thread helped: they placed the person the avoidance of whom they were measuring, so they could at least partially control for affect and clothing and such.