If the employee leaves the company, they still own the home. The only caveat (and it’s understandable and reasonable IMO) appears to be that if the homeowner decides to sell the home within 3 years, the company has right of first refusal to buy the home at the same cost they originally sold it for to the employee.
You are making assumptions about the company’s motives that are based on your own biases. You seem to feel that the employee is somehow being wage abused for being offered a house to own at a below market rate. How is it that a) this situation describes a “company” town in the historical sense. And b) the employee is somehow abused for choosing to purchase a home below market value?
Edit: hit send too soon.
At any rate, you want to complain about the problem, and claim that what appears to be a working solution for an employer and it’s employees is somehow spurious, but have offered zero solutions other than outrage.
We get it, you are mad about housing affordability and want to comment about your anger. Post a solution, both here and elsewhere in the conversation you seem to avoid that. So be it.