I address this in my OP. If you watch the video of the proof, you will see that the "law of sines" is 1 step away from the ratio definition of sin. You just drop one altitude, apply the definition again to the similar triangles, and re-arrange. It is almost content free as a result -- I see no reason using this in a proof would have special significance. For example, the standard proof using similar triangles (https://sumantmath.wordpress.com/2020/08/16/proof-of-pythago...) is implicitly using the law of sines.

The hype part is the implication that impossible trig barrier was shattered by their proof.