You're assuming that the differences in wages between US and Europe are solely due to labor laws, which is quite a stretch, in my opinion.
I think it's likely that the difference in labour laws is a contributing factor. Switzerland has very little by way of worker protection, instead placing a significant emphasis on unemployment insurance (Arbeitslosenversicherung).
How does the parent commenter acknowledging a single factor in a situation lead you to believe that they assume no other contributing factors exist?