My guess is that foreign governments aren’t counted as 3rd parties / promoters?
My guess is that foreign governments aren’t counted as 3rd parties / promoters?
Interest bearing bank acceptances or commercial paper with maturities less than 180 days or 270 days respectively are also explicitly exempt. Since coinbase’s offering has no maturity date, and money can be withdrawn at will, my guess is that they are trying to argue that this is an exempt security. TBF, I don’t see much difference between this and a foreign-denominated interest bearing bank account.
There’s a lot of crypto==bad posting going on, and I generally agree with the crypto==bad crowd, but this is hardly a clear matter and likely needs to be taken to court to resolve. The SEC has a long history of turf wars with other regulatory agencies and regulatory overreach beyond their congressional authorization. They have lost 4 out of their last 5 Supreme Court cases related to cryptocurrency. I wouldn’t be surprised if their refusal to clarify is because they know they wouldn’t prevail in court and are trying to get away with setting precedent in the court of public opinion. It certainly looks like it’s working, judging by the opinions in this thread.
You can watch a very interesting recent interview with her here: https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=kvsJM0regpw
Or read some of her recent dissents: https://www.sec.gov/news/statement/peirce-statement-kraken-0...
Being issued by a sovereign state would probably be a better test.
Aha, so they just need another layer of indirection.
Acting on the imprimatur of the country's central bank, programmatically issue a sovereign CBDC upon the deposit of BTC. Keep cryptographic proof of 100% BTC reserves at all times to provide ultimate credibility for your (potentially parallel) currency (so you can keep using dollars or pesos or whatever in your real economy). Allow intra-CBDC transfers for 0.1% fee and programmatic redemptions for BTC for 0.2%. Profit.
`ping -i1 www.bcr.gob.sv`...
It isn't "issued by a sovereign state" - that's "fiat" but rather "used for paying taxes." And sometimes, like in the US, debts ("all debts foreign and domestic").
Certainly it has to vary among countries of which I am ignorant, but generally in the Anglosphere it is debts, not payments, that trigger the definition of "legal tender."
I’m not sure the rationale (or if it is just an explicit designation), but forex (and some related derivatives) is commodity trading regulated by the CFTC rather than security trading regulated by the SEC. (I think a regulatory problem with cryptocurrency is that it is generally clearly one or the other, but not always clear which, and while the market would like crypto to be one category it is probably a messy split between the two, absent legislation defining it and assigning it as a category.)
If it’s, like Bitcoin, just a number in a ledger, it’s a commodity.
As soon as you attach any specific data to it, like a smart contract or tieing it to a single, tangible object like a painting, or paying rewards to people who bought before a specified time, it’s no longer fungible. It isn’t a commodity.
It takes significantly more time to construct a rebuttal than to produce a gish gallop of senseless arguments like the one above. So I will simply refer you to this link: https://isethereumasecurity.com/
If you’re a day trader of forex usually at the end of the day you would settle back into your default currency. Your gains from this is taxed. But usually when doing this you’re buying derivative products that are explicitly securities with maturity dates.
Same with precious metals, or Bitcoin.
If you bought btc, used it to buy goods, and never cashed it back to usd then I think it is a currency.
If this wasn't the case you could just avoid capital gains by buying something with eulos and reselling it for usd with no profit.
The specific line item is on Form 8949, to report gains from foreign currency exchange transactions, Part I and it absolutely applies to vacation travelers, not just FOREX investors.