> Creative copyright explicitly does give creators a claim on derivative work made using their creative output.
No actually, not for this situation. They don't if they sold the right to do that, which they did.
> except by (exceptionally rare) prior agreement
Oh ok. So then, if in situation 1, and situation 2, there is the same exact prior agreement on the specific topic of if you are allowed to make derivative works, then the situations are exactly same.
Which is the situation.
So yes, the situations are the same, because of the same prior agreement.
Thats why the situation is stupid. The creator sold the rights to make derivative works away. Just like if someone sold you a computer.
And then people used the computer, and also used the sold rights to make derivatives works for the art, because both the computer and the right to make derivative works were equally sold.
> which specifically ignore those patents
Ok now imagine someone sells the rights to use the patent in any way that they want, and then you come along and say "Well, can you considered that if the person didn't sell the patent, that this would be illegal?"
That wouldn't make any sense to say that.