It's the end result in either case, but a lot of uncertainty and friction is added for some reason. Why?
It's the end result in either case, but a lot of uncertainty and friction is added for some reason. Why?
Under new policy, for the next year, the Fed will lend against the par value of certain assets purchased before the crisis. That's an undercollateralized loan, so it's a subsidy to banks that took excessive interest rate risks. Those banks are still worse off than if they hadn't taken that risk though, since the interest cost of the loan is greater than the interest paid by the asset.
This policy change has no direct cost to the public if the loans are repaid. If a bank gets such a loan and then fails anyways, some losses will be socialized.
https://www.federalreserve.gov/newsevents/pressreleases/mone...
The whole thing sounds like a charade
This argument ignores the "black swan" events of covid, ukrainian invasion by russia, supply bottlenecks of various kinds, and trade tensions with china, all happening at the "same" time within the last 3 years.
we are living in financial clownworld now.
Is this not essentially QE?