Interesting that they make this argument, and not the rather more obvious one that their 55 ABV spirit, like all spirits, is going to be overwhelmingly consumed by people who drink way too much.
I rented a cellar apartment in one of the most expensive neighbourhoods in my country for some years. (I got it cheap because the owner mostly just wanted someone to be there when she was away, also there was no real kitchen). Other than me and the au-pairs I met on morning jogs, everyone there was probably obscenely rich.
And I'm no expert on those things, but the bottles I saw lying along the roads on those jogs didn't seem like the cheap sort.
(Context for the question - I barely drink spirits, but I used to enjoy them quite a lot at a time when I drank more in general, and I'd be interested to read about it, whether this is common etc)
https://www.oecd-ilibrary.org/sites/f98f97b1-en/index.html?i...
There's little reason to think expensive, exclusive spirits are exempt from this pattern.
I was kinda/sorta expecting something specific to stronger alcohol being disproportionately consumed by those who also consumed other alcohol. Like if 50% of all booze is consumed by 10% of the population who are heavy drinkers, does that skew to 90% of spirits?
Interesting read anyway.